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Do I have this right?

1. User does a search in a Microsoft toolbar, using Google as his search engine. User is searching for $terms.

2. User gets a results page. User clicks on the entry in the results for $site.

3. Toolbar sends back to Microsoft that the $site was the first result the user chose for $terms.

4. Bing uses this to increase $site's placement in searches for $terms.

An interesting question then would be whether or not Microsoft also "copies" from Bing? That is, if you are using Bing as your search engine, do they still use the fact that you went to $site after searching for $terms to adjust the rankings?




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