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Please elaborate on the change in meaning?




why isn't the word "prejudice" used anymore?



I didn't ask what GPT or 3 random people said. why can't you articulate your own position?


Well you didn't answer my question. But I'm going to assume you're hinting at the false equivalency conservative line to trot out about prejudice against poor it rural people.

Prejudice is rooted in lack of knowledge and unfamiliarity. Racism is familiar and has it's own body of knowledge; all wrong, but vehemently defended. Racists try to build their own narrative.


I didnt ask what the difference was, I asked why one word isn't used anymore. Why are you not paying attention?


You still haven't answered me, but I'll leave this for you consideration. Sub in racist for anti-semite. I believe this applies to you

"Never believe that anti-Semites are completely unaware of the absurdity of their replies. They know that their remarks are frivolous, open to challenge. But they are amusing themselves, for it is their adversary who is obliged to use words responsibly, since he believes in words. The anti-Semites have the right to play. They even like to play with discourse for, by giving ridiculous reasons, they discredit the seriousness of their interlocutors. They delight in acting in bad faith, since they seek not to persuade by sound argument but to intimidate and disconcert. If you press them too closely, they will abruptly fall silent, loftily indicating by some phrase that the time for argument is past." Jean-Paul Sartre




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